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#### Petrus

##### Well-known member

- Feb 21, 2013

- 739

decide if it got a limit if \(\displaystyle x^2+y^2=\infty\). if so calculate it.

well I go to polar form and we got

\(\displaystyle \lim_{r^2->\infty}\frac{\ln(1+r^2\cos^2(\theta)r^2\sin^2( \theta))}{r^4\cos^2(\theta)^4+r^4\sin^4(\theta)}\)

we see both approach to limit but the bottom will go alot faster so it will be equal to zero, is this wrong to say like this?

Regards,

\(\displaystyle |\pi\rangle\)